EDB — 1QN

Exercises

1. [1QN] Let \(f:[0,1]→ℝ\) be a function \(C^ 2\) such that \(f(0)=f(1)=0\) and \(f'(x)=f(x)f''(x)\) for every \(x∈[0,1]\).

   Prove that the function \(f\) is identically zero.

   Solution 1

   [1QP]↺↻